Esther 1:15, Question 2. Why does the verse say “bamalka” (“in the queen”) instead of “lamalka” (“to the queen”)?

According to the Midrash (Esther Rabbah 4:5), this word, “bamalka,” is meant to contrast what occurred in the 1 case of Vashti with the case of Esther, who also acts out of line with “k’das” (“the law”) (Esther 4:16) when she attempts to visit the king uninvited. G-d Willing, we will learn more about that verse when we get there.

1The Hebrew prefix “ba” means “in the.”

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