Esther 9:26, Question 6. Why does the verse call this document a letter?

  • R’ Dovid Feinstein writes that the verse calls this document a letter in order to stress the fact that it should be viewed as new and fresh.
  • Perhaps it will also help people see it as something like a personal message from H-Shem to them.

Esther 9:26, Question 5. Why does the verse stress “all the words” of this document?

  • R’ Dovid Feinstein writes that the verse stresses “all the words” of this document because Mordechai wrote out all the words and details in Megillas Esther for future generations to know that they should do just as we are doing now – looking deeply into the words and letters of this holy work to glean from it lessons for our lives.
  • The Talmud (Yerushalmi Megilla 2:4) adds that this is the reason why Halacha (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chaim 692:2, Mishna Berura 692:9) requires every Jew to hear every word of the public reading of Megillas Esther on Purim uninterrupted in order to fulfill their obligations.

Esther 9:26, Question 4. Why is Purim spelled in full, as opposed to later (Esther 9:30)?

According to R’ Chaim Kanievsky, the word, Purim, is written in full in this verse, as opposed to later (Esther 9:30), where it is written in a more incomplete form because on this particular first Purim, the Jews’ joy was boundless. Later, as the people were further removed from their miraculous salvation, their joy diminished accordingly.

Esther 9:26, Question 3. Why is the name, Purim, written in the plural?

  • According to R’ Yehonason Eibshutz, Purim is written in the plural because Haman made multiple lots according to the Midrash (Esther Rabba 7:11), hoping for the lots to fall on an auspicious day.
  • Echoing the scientific method, HaShoel U’Mayshiv similarly remarks that one can only be confident with the results of lots if they they are successfully rolled repeatedly.
  • The Maharal, however, writes that Purim is plural because it is commemorated on two days, the 14th and Shushan Purim on the 15th of Adar.
  • In R’ Shimon Schwab’s opinion, Purim is plural because we commemorate both Haman’s pur, and our own, as in the words of the piyut, “the pur of Haman was overturned by our pur.” This further explains the previous verse (Esther 9:25) which says the that Haman’s evil designs were returned onto his head.

Esther 9:26, Question 2. Why did they decide on Purim for the name of this holiday?

  • The Me’am Loez writes that they decided on the name of the holiday being Purim because the lots being rolled in Nissan, and coming up with the date in Adar eleven months later gave the Jews time to pray and to repent.
  • Furthermore, Adar had previously had no other holidays, so Purim’s falling out then made it stand out more conspicuously as a holiday, receiving the attention it deserves.
  • Also, the Vilna Gaon and Malbim point out that the lots pointed to a potentially bad fortune, but H-Shem reversed it to a good fortune.
  • In quoting Rabbeinu Yona’s Shaarei Teshuva (2:4), the Ginzei HaMelech notes that just as sin can be transformed to a mitzva status if the sin leads to teshuva (“repentance”), so too the lots lead directly to the Jews’ redemption.
  • The Ksav Sofer supports this point by writing that in calling the day Purim, we celebrate the pain suffered by the Jews at this time, since it led directly to their re-acceptance of Torah (Esther 9:27).
  • Rav Moshe Feinstein wrote that the message to be learned from this is that one should never overconfident of one’s “lot,” thinking that one’s greatness in Torah knowledge or observance will necessarily parry off the Evil Inclination. Rather, even such a person should be always mindful of one’s potential to fall prey to one’s natural, animalistic urges.

Esther 9:26, Question 1. Who named the holiday “Purim?”

כו עַלכֵּן קָֽרְאוּ לַיָּמִים הָאֵלֶּה פוּרִים עַלשֵׁם הַפּוּר עַלכֵּן עַלכָּלדִּבְרֵי הָאִגֶּרֶת הַזֹּאת וּמָהרָאוּ עַלכָּכָה וּמָה הִגִּיעַ אֲלֵיהֶם

26. Therefore, they called to these days “Purim” from the name “pur.” Therefore, because of all of the words of this letter, and what they saw on such, and what happened to them…

According to the Alshich, the Sanhedrin of Mordechai’s day named the holiday.

Esther 9:25, Question 2. Why does the verse not write who said the given statement?

  • According to Rashi, the king said the statement in this verse. Otherwise, as the Talmud (Megilla 16b) notes, the verse would have used the female amra (“she said”) in place of the male amar (“he said”). This is because Esther came before Achashverosh to convince him to redirect Haman’s decree against him.
  • The M’nos HaLevi, however, writes that the inspired idea is the “speaker” in the verse, saying that it had come from above and below.
  • Targum Sheini here has Achashverosh quoting the verse (Shemos 17:14) that he will “surely erase the memory of Amalek from under the Heavens.”
  • The Ginzei HaMelech explains Achashverosh began to fear H-Shem, as the Talmud (Megilla 13b) says he had done before. It was Haman who had convinced him to act otherwise in the past.