Esther 9:26, Question 6. Why does the verse call this document a letter?

  • R’ Dovid Feinstein writes that the verse calls this document a letter in order to stress the fact that it should be viewed as new and fresh.
  • Perhaps it will also help people see it as something like a personal message from H-Shem to them.

Esther 8:11, Question 2. Why do the letters command the Jews to plunder?

  • R’ Dovid Feinstein writes that the Jews were expected to plunder the wealth of the gentiles because of mida kineged mida (“measure for measure”). After all, Haman’s decree (Esther 3:13) included gentiles plundering the valuable of their Jewish victims.

  • However, the Malbim points out that, as opposed to Haman’s letters, these letters did not imply that the plundering was to take place after the enemy was killed out. Rather, they only had one day! This is because Haman gave plenty of time to plunder in order to help motivate the hordes. Mordechai, on the other hand, did not need to do this since survival is the greatest motivator.

  • Class Participant YML suggested that if this letter were written by Achashverosh, it is possible he only gave them one day out of his anti-Semitic desire to give the Jews less than what they were entitled to receive.

Esther 4:8, Question 3. Why does Mordechai tell Hasach to both show and tell the document to Esther?

The Malbim writes, using the answer from the last post, that Mordechai here is showing the copy of the letter, and relating his interpretation of it. He adds that Mordechai could only get the summary version, not what the governors had. He had no other option than to mention the destruction left out of the actual public letter.